document_title: Plague of Athens

question_text: why was the plague that struck athens so devastating

text: Plague of Athens

text: Background[edit]

text: Sparta and its allies, with the exception of Corinth, were almost exclusively land based powers, able to summon large land armies that were very nearly unbeatable. Under the direction of Pericles, the Athenians pursued a policy of retreat within the city walls of Athens, relying on Athenian maritime supremacy for supply while the superior Athenian navy harassed Spartan troop movements. Unfortunately the strategy also resulted in adding many people from the countryside to an already well-populated city, introducing a severe crowding factor as well as resource shortages. Due to the close quarters and poor hygiene exhibited at that time Athens became a breeding ground for disease and many citizens died including Pericles, his wife, and his sons Paralus and Xanthippus. In the history of epidemics the 'Plague' of Athens is remarkable for its one-sided affliction and bias on the ultimate outcome of a war.

text: In his History of the Peloponnesian War the historian Thucydides, who was present and contracted the disease himself and survived,[3] describes the epidemic. He writes of a disease coming from Ethiopia and passing through Egypt and Libya into the Greek world—a plague so severe and deadly that no one could recall anywhere its like, and physicians ignorant of its nature not only were helpless but themselves died the fastest, having had the most contact with the sick. In overcrowded Athens the disease killed an estimated one third to two thirds of the population. The sight of the burning funeral pyres of Athens caused the Spartans to withdraw their troops being unwilling to risk contact with the diseased enemy. Many of Athens' infantry and expert seamen died, as well as their general Pericles. After the death of Pericles, Athens was led by a succession of leaders Thucydides described as incompetent or weak. According to Thucydides, not until 415 BC had Athens recovered sufficiently to mount a major offensive, the disastrous Sicilian Expedition.

text: Social implications[edit]

text: Accounts of the Athenian plague graphically describe the social consequences of an epidemic. Thucydides' account clearly details the complete disappearance of social morals during the time of the plague. The impact of disease on social and religious behavior was also documented during the worldwide pandemic best known as the Black Death.[citation needed]

text: Fear of the law[edit]

text: Thucydides states that people ceased fearing the law since they felt they were already living under a death sentence. Likewise, people started spending money indiscriminately. Many felt they would not live long enough to enjoy the fruits of wise investment, while some of the poor unexpectedly became wealthy by inheriting the property of their relatives. It is also recorded that people refused to behave honorably because most did not expect to live long enough to enjoy a good reputation for it.[4]

text: Care for the sick and dead[edit]

text: Another reason for the lack of honorable behavior was the sheer contagiousness of the illness. Those who tended to the ill were most vulnerable to catching the disease. This meant that many people died alone because no one was willing to risk caring for them. The dead were heaped on top of each other, left to rot, or shoved into mass graves. Sometimes those carrying the dead would come across an already burning funeral pyre, dump a new body on it, and walk away. Others appropriated prepared pyres so as to have enough fuel to cremate their own dead. Those lucky enough to survive the plague developed an immunity and so became the main caretakers of those who later fell ill.[5]

text: A mass grave and nearly 1,000 tombs, dated between 430 and 426 BC, have been found just outside Athens' ancient Kerameikos cemetery. The mass grave was bordered by a low wall that seems to have protected the cemetery from a wetland. Excavated during 1994–95, the shaft-shaped grave may have contained a total of 240 individuals, at least ten of them children. Skeletons in the graves were randomly placed with no layers of soil between them.

text: Excavator Efi Baziotopoulou-Valavani, of the Third Ephoreia (Directorate) of Antiquities, reported that "[t]he mass grave did not have a monumental character. The offerings we found consisted of common, even cheap, burial vessels; black-finished ones, some small red-figured, as well as white lekythoi (oil flasks) of the second half of the 5th century BC. The bodies were placed in the pit within a day or two. These [factors] point to a mass burial in a state of panic, quite possibly due to a plague."[6]

text: Religious strife[edit]

text: The plague also caused religious uncertainty and doubt. Since the disease struck without regard to a person's piety toward the gods, people felt abandoned by the gods and there seemed to be no benefit to worshiping them.[7] The temples themselves were sites of great misery, as refugees from the Athenian countryside had been forced to find accommodation in the temples. Soon the sacred buildings were filled with the dead and dying. The Athenians pointed to the plague as evidence that the gods favored Sparta, and this was supported by an oracle that Apollo himself (the god of disease and medicine) would fight for Sparta if they fought with all their might. An earlier oracle had warned that "War with the Dorians [Spartans] comes and at the same time death".[8]

text: Thucydides is skeptical of these conclusions and believes that people were simply being superstitious. He relies upon the prevailing medical theory of the day, Hippocratic theory, and strives to gather evidence through direct observation. He notes that carrion-eating birds and animals disappeared as a result, though he leaves it an open question whether they died after eating the corpses or refused to eat them and were driven away:

text: All the birds and beasts that prey upon human bodies, either abstained from touching them (though there were many lying unburied), or died after tasting them. In proof of this, it was noticed that birds of this kind actually disappeared; they were not about the bodies, or indeed to be seen at all.[9]

text: Cause[edit]

text: Historians have long tried to identify the disease behind the Plague of Athens. The disease has traditionally been considered an outbreak of the bubonic plague in its many forms, but reconsiderations of the reported symptoms and epidemiology have led scholars to advance alternative explanations. These include typhus, smallpox, measles, and toxic shock syndrome.[10] Based upon striking descriptive similarities with recent outbreaks in Africa, as well as the fact that the Athenian plague itself apparently came from Africa (as Thucydides recorded), Ebola or a related viral hemorrhagic fever has been considered.[11]

text: Given the possibility that profiles of a known disease may have morphed over time or the plague was caused by a disease that no longer exists, the exact nature of the Athenian plague may never be known. In addition, crowding caused by the influx of refugees into the city led to inadequate food and water supplies and a probable proportionate increase in insects, lice, rats, and waste. These conditions would have encouraged more than one epidemic disease during the outbreak. However, advancing scientific technologies may reveal new clues.

text: In 2005 a correlation was made between DNA extracted from dental pulp of three teeth recovered from the Kerameikos cemetery (excavated 1994–95[12]) in Athens and a known pathogen: typhoid fever.[12]

text: Typhus[edit]

text: In January 1999, the University of Maryland devoted their fifth annual medical conference, dedicated to notorious case histories, to the Plague of Athens. They concluded that the disease that killed the Greeks and their military and political leader, Pericles, was typhus. "Epidemic typhus fever is the best explanation," said Dr. David Durack, consulting professor of medicine at Duke University. "It hits hardest in times of war and privation, it has about 20 percent mortality, it kills the victim after about seven days, and it sometimes causes a striking complication: gangrene of the tips of the fingers and toes. The Plague of Athens had all these features."[13] In typhus cases, progressive dehydration, debilitation and cardiovascular collapse ultimately cause the patient's death.

text: This medical opinion is supported by the opinion of A. W. Gomme, who wrote a comprehensive annotated edition of Thucydides and who also believed typhus was the cause of the epidemic. This opinion is expressed in his monumental work Historic Comments on Thucydides,[14] completed after Gomme's death by A. Andrewes and K. J. Dover. Angelos Vlachos (Άγγελος Βλάχος), a member of the Academy of Athens and a diplomat, in his Remarks on Thucydides (in Greek: Παρατηρήσεις στο Θουκυδίδη, [1992] I: 177–-78) acknowledges and supports Gomme's opinion: "Today, according to Gomme, it is generally acceptable that it was typhus" ("Σήμερα, όπως γράφει ο Gomme, έχει γίνει από όλους παραδεκτό ότι ήταν τύφος"). The theory has also found support recent in a study of the plague by Greek epidemiologists.[2]

text: Other researchers disagree, noting prominently among other discrepancies, the absence in typhus of the dramatic gastrointestinal symptoms described by Thucydides.

text: Typhoid[edit]

text: A different answer was found in a DNA study of teeth recovered from an ancient Greek burial pit, led by Manolis Papagrigorakis of the University of Athens, which found DNA sequences similar to those of the organism that causes typhoid fever.[15] Symptoms generally associated with typhoid resemble Thucydides' description. They include:

text:
a high fever from 39 °C to 40 °C (103 °F to 104 °F) that rises slowly;
chills
bradycardia (slow heart rate)
weakness
diarrhea
headaches
myalgia (muscle pain)
lack of appetite
constipation
stomach pains
in some cases, a rash of flat, rose-colored spots called "rose spots"
extreme symptoms such as intestinal perforation or hemorrhage, delusions and confusion are also possible.

text: Some aspects of typhoid are at clear variance from Thucydides' description. Scavenger animals do not die from infection with typhoid,[16] the onset of fever in typhoid is typically slow and subtle, and typhoid generally kills later in the disease course. As typhoid is most commonly transmitted through poor hygiene habits and public sanitation conditions in crowded urban areas, it is an unlikely cause of a plague emerging in the less urbanized Africa, as reported by Thucydides. Some researchers have disputed the findings from the dental pulp study, citing what they claim are serious methodologic flaws.[17] It is true that contamination-induced false-positives are one of the major problems with the technique used, PCR (polymerase chain reaction), and the Kerameikos burial area is known to have been heavily trafficked in antiquity by hogs, carriers of Salmonella species that may have been confused with the Salmonella typhi that causes typhoid. However, the authors of the original study assert that the basis of the objections is flimsy,[18] and the methodology used to produce the disproof has been previously shown to give conflicting results.[19]

text: Viral hemorrhagic fever[edit]

text: Thucydides' narrative pointedly refers to increased risk among caregivers, more typical of the person-to-person contact spread of viral hemorrhagic fever (e.g., Ebola virus disease or Marburg virus) than typhus or typhoid. Unusual in the history of plagues during military operations, besieging Spartan troops are described as not having been afflicted by the illness raging near them within the city. Thucydides' description further invites comparison with VHF in the character and sequence of symptoms developed, and of the usual fatal outcome on about the eighth day. Some scientists have interpreted Thucydides' expression "lugx kenē" (λύγξ κενή) as the unusual symptom of hiccups,[20] which is now recognized as a common finding in Ebola virus disease. Outbreaks of VHF in Africa in 2012 and 2014 reinforced observations of the increased hazard to caregivers and the necessity of barrier precautions for preventing disease spread related to grief rituals and funerary rites. The 2015 west African Ebola outbreak noted persistence of effects on genitalia and eyes in some survivors, both described by Thucydides. With an up to 21-day clinical incubation period, and up to 565-day infectious potential recently demonstrated in a semen-transmitted infection, movement of Ebola via Nile commerce into the busy port of Piraeus is plausible. Ancient Greek intimacy with African sources is reflected in accurate renditions of monkeys in art of frescoes and pottery, most notably guenons (Cercopithecus), the type of primates responsible for transmitting Marburg virus into Germany and Yugoslavia when that disease was first characterized in 1967. Circumstantially tantalizing is the requirement for the large quantity of ivory used in the Athenian sculptor Phidias’ two monumental ivory and gold statues of Athena and of Zeus (one of the Seven Wonders), which were fabricated in the same decade. Never again in antiquity was ivory used on such a large scale.

text: A second ancient narrative suggesting hemorrhagic fever etiology is that of Titus Lucretius Carus. Writing in the 1st century B.C., Lucretius characterized the Athenian plague as having "bloody" or black discharges from bodily orifices. Lucretius cited and was an admirer of scientific predecessors in Greek Sicily Empedocles and Acron. While none of the original works of Acron, a physician, are extant, it is reported that he died ca. 430 B.C. after travel to Athens to combat the plague.

text: Unfortunately DNA sequence-based identification is limited by the inability of some important pathogens to leave a "footprint" retrievable from archaeological remains after several millennia. The lack of a durable signature by RNA viruses means some etiologies, notably the hemorrhagic fever viruses, are not testable hypotheses using currently available scientific techniques.


document_title: Tachycardia

question_text: what does a heart rate of 131 mean

question_tokens: what does a heart rate of 131 mean

root

text: Tachycardia

text: Definition[edit]

text: The upper threshold of a normal human resting heart rate is based on age. Cutoff values for tachycardia in different age groups are fairly well standardized; typical cutoffs are listed below:[2]

tag: p

text:
1–2 days: Tachycardia > 159 beats per minute (bpm)
3–6 days: Tachycardia >166 bpm
1–3 weeks: Tachycardia >182 bpm
1–2 months: Tachycardia >179 bpm
3–5 months: Tachycardia >186 bpm
6–11 months: Tachycardia >169 bpm
1–2 years: Tachycardia >151 bpm
3–4 years: Tachycardia >137 bpm
5–7 years: Tachycardia >133 bpm
8–11 years: Tachycardia >130 bpm
12–15 years: Tachycardia >119 bpm
>15 years – adult: Tachycardia >100 bpm

tag: ul

text: Heart rate is considered in the context of the prevailing clinical picture. For example: in sepsis >90 bpm is considered tachycardia.

text: When the heart beats excessively or rapidly, the heart pumps less efficiently and provides less blood flow to the rest of the body, including the heart itself. The increased heart rate also leads to increased work and oxygen demand by the heart, which can lead to rate related ischemia.[3]

text: Relative tachycardia involves a greater increase in rate than would be expected in a given illness state.[citation needed]

text: Causes[edit]

text: Some causes of tachycardia include:

text:
Adrenergic storm
Alcohol
Amphetamine
Anaemia
Antiarrhythmic agents
Anxiety
Atrial fibrillation
Atrial flutter
Atrial tachycardia
AV nodal reentrant tachycardia
Brugada syndrome
Caffeine
Cocaine
Exercise
Fear
Fever
Hypoglycemia
Hypovolemia
Hyperthyroidism
Hyperventilation
Infection
Junctional tachycardia
Methamphetamine
Multifocal atrial tachycardia
Nicotine
Pacemaker mediated
Pain
Pheochromocytoma
Sinus tachycardia
Tricyclic antidepressants
Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

text: Differential diagnosis[edit]

text: An electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to classify the type of tachycardia. They may be classified into narrow and wide complex based on the QRS complex.[4] Presented order of most to least common, they are:[4]

text:
Narrow complex

Sinus tachycardia, which originates from the sino-atrial (SA) node, near the base of the superior vena cava
Atrial fibrillation
Atrial flutter
AV nodal reentrant tachycardia
Accessory pathway mediated tachycardia
Atrial tachycardia
Multifocal atrial tachycardia
Junctional tachycardia

Wide complex

Ventricular tachycardia, any tachycardia that originates in the ventricles
Any narrow complex tachycardia combined with a problem with the conduction system of the heart, often termed "supraventricular tachycardia with aberrancy"
A narrow complex tachycardia with an accessory conduction pathway, often termed "supraventricular tachycardia with pre-excitation" (e.g. Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome)
Pacemaker-tracked or pacemaker-mediated tachycardia

text: Tachycardias may be classified as either narrow complex tachycardias (supraventricular tachycardias) or wide complex tachycardias. Narrow and wide refer to the width of the QRS complex on the ECG. Narrow complex tachycardias tend to originate in the atria, while wide complex tachycardias tend to originate in the ventricles. Tachycardias can be further classified as either regular or irregular.

text: Sinus[edit]

text: The body has several feedback mechanisms to maintain adequate blood flow and blood pressure. If blood pressure decreases, the heart beats faster in an attempt to raise it. This is called reflex tachycardia. This can happen in response to a decrease in blood volume (through dehydration or bleeding), or an unexpected change in blood flow. The most common cause of the latter is orthostatic hypotension (also called postural hypotension). Fever, hyperventilation, diarrhea and severe infections can also cause tachycardia, primarily due to increase in metabolic demands.

text: An increase in sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes the heart rate to increase, both by the direct action of sympathetic nerve fibers on the heart and by causing the endocrine system to release hormones such as epinephrine (adrenaline), which have a similar effect. Increased sympathetic stimulation is usually due to physical or psychological stress. This is the basis for the so-called fight-or-flight response, but such stimulation can also be induced by stimulants such as ephedrine, amphetamines or cocaine. Certain endocrine disorders such as pheochromocytoma can also cause epinephrine release and can result in tachycardia independent of nervous system stimulation. Hyperthyroidism can also cause tachycardia.[5] The upper limit of normal rate for sinus tachycardia is thought to be 220 bpm minus age.

text: Ventricular[edit]

text: Ventricular tachycardia (VT or V-tach) is a potentially life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia that originates in the ventricles. It is usually a regular, wide complex tachycardia with a rate between 120 and 250 beats per minute.

text: Both of these rhythms normally last for only a few seconds to minutes (paroxysmal tachycardia), but if VT persists it is extremely dangerous, often leading to ventricular fibrillation.

text: Supraventricular[edit]

text: This is a type of tachycardia that originates from above the ventricles, such as the atria. It is sometimes known as paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT). Several types of supraventricular tachycardia are known to exist.

text: Atrial fibrillation[edit]

text: Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common cardiac arrhythmias. In general, it is an irregular, narrow complex rhythm. However, it may show wide QRS complexes on the ECG if a bundle branch block is present. At high rates, the QRS complex may also become wide due to the Ashman phenomenon. It may be difficult to determine the rhythm's regularity when the rate exceeds 150 beats per minute. Depending on the patient's health and other variables such as medications taken for rate control, atrial fibrillation may cause heart rates that span from 50 to 250 beats per minute (or even higher if an accessory pathway is present). However, new onset atrial fibrillation tends to present with rates between 100 and 150 beats per minute.

text: AV nodal reentrant tachycardia[edit]

text: AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT) is the most common reentrant tachycardia. It is a regular narrow complex tachycardia that usually responds well to the Valsalva maneuver or the drug adenosine. However, unstable patients sometimes require synchronized cardioversion. Definitive care may include catheter ablation.

text: AV reentrant tachycardia[edit]

text: AV reentrant tachycardia (AVRT) requires an accessory pathway for its maintenance. AVRT may involve orthodromic conduction (where the impulse travels down the AV node to the ventricles and back up to the atria through the accessory pathway) or antidromic conduction (which the impulse travels down the accessory pathway and back up to the atria through the AV node). Orthodromic conduction usually results in a narrow complex tachycardia, and antidromic conduction usually results in a wide complex tachycardia that often mimics ventricular tachycardia. Most antiarrhythmics are contraindicated in the emergency treatment of AVRT, because they may paradoxically increase conduction across the accessory pathway.

text: Junctional tachycardia[edit]

text: Junctional tachycardia is an automatic tachycardia originating in the AV junction. It tends to be a regular, narrow complex tachycardia and may be a sign of digitalis toxicity.

text: Management[edit]

text: The management of tachycardia depends on its type (wide complex versus narrow complex), whether or not the person is stable or unstable, and whether the instability is due to the tachycardia.[4] Unstable means that either important organ functions are affected or cardiac arrest is about to occur.[4]

text: Unstable[edit]

text: In those that are unstable with a narrow complex tachycardia, intravenous adenosine may be attempted.[4] In all others immediate cardioversion is recommended.[4]

text: Terminology[edit]

text: The word tachycardia came to English from New Latin as a neoclassical compound built from the combining forms tachy- + -cardia, which are from the Greek ταχύς tachys, "quick, rapid" and καρδία, kardia, "heart". As a matter both of usage choices in the medical literature and of idiom in natural language, the words tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia are usually used interchangeably, or loosely enough that precise differentiation is not explicit. Some careful writers have tried to maintain a logical differentiation between them, which is reflected in major medical dictionaries[6][7][8] and major general dictionaries.[9][10][11] The distinction is that tachycardia be reserved for the rapid heart rate itself, regardless of cause, physiologic or pathologic (that is, from healthy response to exercise or from cardiac arrhythmia), and that tachyarrhythmia be reserved for the pathologic form (that is, an arrhythmia of the rapid rate type). This is why five of the aforementioned dictionaries do not enter cross-references indicating synonymy between their entries for the two words (as they do elsewhere whenever synonymy is meant), and it is why one of them explicitly specifies that the two words not be confused.[8] But the prescription will probably never be successfully imposed on general usage, not only because much of the existing medical literature ignores it even when the words stand alone but also because the terms for specific types of arrhythmia (standard collocations of adjectives and noun) are deeply established idiomatically with the tachycardia version as the more commonly used version. Thus SVT is called supraventricular tachycardia more than twice as often as it is called supraventricular tachyarrhythmia; moreover, those two terms are always completely synonymous—in natural language there is no such term as "healthy/physiologic supraventricular tachycardia". The same themes are also true of AVRT and AVNRT. Thus this pair is an example of when a particular prescription (which may have been tenable 50 or 100 years earlier) can no longer be invariably enforced without violating idiom. But the power to differentiate in an idiomatic way is not lost, regardless, because when the specification of physiologic tachycardia is needed, that phrase aptly conveys it.


document_title: Public Provident Fund (India)

question_text: what is the current rate of interest on ppf

text: Public Provident Fund (India)

text: Eligibility[edit]

text: Individuals who are residents of India are eligible to open their account under the Public Provident Fund, and are entitled to tax-free return later.

text: Investment and returns[edit]

text: A minimum yearly deposit of Rs. 500 is required to open and maintain a PPF account. A PPF account holder can deposit a maximum of Rs 1.5 lacs in his/her PPF account (including those accounts where he is the guardian) per financial year. There must be a guardian for PPF accounts opened in the name of minor children. Parents can act as guardians in such PPF accounts of minor children. Any amount deposited in excess of Rs 1.5 lacs in a financial year won't earn any interest. The amount can be deposited in lump sum or in a maximum of 12 installments per year. However, this does not mean a single deposit once in a month.

text: The Ministry of Finance, Government of India announces the rate of interest for PPF account every quarter. The current interest rate effective from 1 January 2018 is 7.6% Per Annum' (compounded annually). Interest will be paid on 31 March every year. Interest is calculated on the lowest balance between the close of the fifth day and the last day of every month.

text: Interest rates[edit]

text:
Period
Interest Rate

2014 - March 2016
8.7%

tag: table

text:
Quarter
Interest Rate

April 2016 - June 2016[3]
8.1%

July 2016 - September 2016[4]
8.1%

October 2016 - December 2016[5]
8.0%

January 2017 - March 2017
8.0%

text:
Quarter
Interest Rate

April 2017 - June 2017[6]
7.9%

July 2017 - September 2017[7]
7.8%

October 2017 - December 2017
7.8%

January 2018 - March 2018
7.6%

text:
Quarter
Interest Rate

April 2018 - June 2018[8]
7.6%

text: Duration of scheme[edit]

text: Original duration is 15 years. Thereafter, on application by the subscriber, it can be extended for 1 or more blocks of 5 years each.

text: PPF maturity options[edit]

text: Subscriber has 3 options once the maturity period is over.[9]

text:
Complete withdrawal'
Extend the PPF account with no contribution – PPF account can be extended after the completion of 15 years, subscriber doesn’t need to put any amount after the maturity. This is the default option meaning if subscriber doesn't take any action within one year of his PPF account maturity this option activates automatically. Any amount can be withdrawn from the PPF account if the option of extension with no contribution is chosen. Only restriction is only one withdrawal is permitted in a financial year. Rest of the amount keeps earning interest.
Extend the PPF account with contribution - With this option subscriber can put money in his PPF account after extension. If subscriber wants to choose this option then he needs to submit Form H in the bank where he is having a PPF account within one year from the date of maturity (before the completion of 16 yrs in PPF). With this option subscriber can only withdraw maximum 60% of his PPF amount (amount which was there in the PPF account at the beginning of the extended period) within the entire 5 yrs block. Every year only a single withdrawal is permitted.

tag: ol

text: Loans[edit]

text: Loan facility available from 3rd financial year up to 5th financial year. The rate of interest charged on loan taken by the subscriber of a PPF account on or after 01.12.2011 shall be 2% more than the prevailing interest on PPF. However, the rate of interest of 1% more than PPF interest p.a. shall continue to be charged on the loans already taken or taken up to 30.11.2013.

text: Up to a maximum of 25 per cent of the balance at the end of the 2nd immediately preceding year would be allowed as loan. Such withdrawals are to be repaid within 36 months.

text: A second loan could be availed as long as you are within the 3rd and before the 6th year, and only if the first one is fully repaid. Also note that once you become eligible for withdrawals, no loans would be permitted. Inactive accounts or discontinued accounts are not eligible for loan.

text: Features[edit]

text: The public provident fund is established by the central government. One can voluntarily open an account with any nationalized bank,selected authorized private bank or post office. The account can be opened in the name of individuals including minor.

text: The minimum amount is Rs.500 which can be deposited. The rate of interest at present is 7.6% per annum, which is also tax-free. The entire balance can be withdrawn on maturity. Interest received is tax free. The maximum amount which can be deposited every year is Rs. 1,50,000 in an account at present. The interest earned on the PPF subscription is compounded annually. All the balance that accumulates over time is exempted from wealth tax. Moreover, it has low risk – risk attached is Government risk. PPF is available at post offices and banks.

text: Withdrawals from PPF account[edit]

text: There is a lock-in period of 15 years and the money can be withdrawn in full after its maturity period. However, pre-mature withdrawals can be made from the start of the seventh financial year. The maximum amount that can be withdrawn pre-maturely is equal to 50% of the amount that stood in the account at the end of 4th year preceding the year in which the amount is withdrawn or the end of the preceding year whichever is lower.

text: After 15 years of maturity, full PPF amount can be withdrawn and all is tax free, including the interest amount as well.

text: Nomination[edit]

text: Nomination facility is available in the name of one or more persons. The shares of nominees may also be defined by the subscriber.

text: PPF defaults and revival[edit]

text: If any contribution of minimum amount in any year is not invested, then the account will be deactivated. To activate the bearer needs to pay Rs.50 as penalty for each inactive year. He/she also needs to deposit Rs.500 each as each inactive year’s contribution.

text: In case death of account holder then the balance amount will be paid to his nominee or legal heir even before 15 years. Nominees or legal heirs are not eligible to continue the account of the deceased.

text: If balance amount in the account of a deceased is higher than Rs.1,50,000 then the nominee or legal heir has to prove the identity to claim the amount

text: Premature closure of PPF account[edit]

text: The Public Provident Fund (Amendment) Scheme, 2016 made changes in Paragraph 9, for sub-rule 3(C) of Public Provident Fund Scheme, 1968 to facilitate the premature closure of PPF Account.[10] Premature closure of PPF account is permitted after completion of 5 years for medical treatment of family members and for higher education of PPF account holder. However, premature closure comes with an interest rate penalty of 1%.

text: Transfer of account[edit]

text: The account can be transferred to other branches/ other banks or Post Offices and vice versa upon request by the subscriber. The service is free of charges.

text: Step 1 – Approach the bank or post office branch where the PPF account is held and ask for the form for making the transfer. The bank or post office will provide you with a form which is to be filled.

text: Step 2 – The existing bank will then forward the certified copy of the account, the account opening application, nomination form, and specimen signature. It will also forward the cheque/dd for the outstanding amount in the PPF account to the new bank at the branch specified by the customer.

text: Step 3 – Once your bank receives these documents, the bank will inform you and ask you to submit a new PPF account opening form along with the old PPF passbook. You can also provide nominations for this new account. You will also be required to submit the KYC documents.

text: Step 4 – If you hold an internet banking facility with your bank, after a few weeks, check that the transferred PPF account now shows up under the PPF account tab/link in your login. If that is not the case, inquire the local bank branch.

text: PPF tax concessions[edit]

text: Annual contributions qualify for tax deduction under Section 80C of income tax. The tax benefit is capped at Rs 1.5 lacs per financial year. Contributions to PPF accounts of the spouse and children are also eligible for tax deduction.

text: PPF falls under EEE (Exempt,Exempt,Exempt) tax basket. Contribution to PPF account is eligible for tax benefit under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act. Interest earned is exempt from income tax and maturity proceeds are also exempt from tax.


document_title: FA Cup semi-finals

question_text: when is the fa cup semi-finals being played

text: FA Cup semi-finals

text: Location[edit]

text: The semi-finals have always been contested at neutral venues - now at Wembley. In the past any suitably large ground which was not the home ground of a teams in that semi-final was used including Villa Park in Birmingham, Old Trafford in Manchester and Hillsborough in Sheffield.

text: The 1991 semi-final between Arsenal and Tottenham Hotspur was the first to be played at Wembley, the traditional venue for the FA Cup Final. Two years later both semi-finals were held at Wembley after the Steel City derby between Sheffield clubs Wednesday and United was switched from the original venue of Elland Road, Leeds. This was repeated in 1994, although a replay between Manchester United and Oldham Athletic was held at Maine Road, Manchester.

text: From 1995 to 1999 and from 2001 to 2004 other neutral grounds were used, though in 2000 both matches were played at the old Wembley, in its final year of operation. In 2005 both semi-finals were played at the Millennium Stadium, Cardiff. However, in 2006 the FA decided to revert to the neutral ground system, with Villa Park and Old Trafford hosting the games.

text: In 2003, it was announced that all future semi-finals would be played at the new Wembley Stadium, once it had opened;[1] this took effect in 2008. The decision was mainly for financial reasons, to allow the FA to recoup some of the costs of rebuilding the stadium. However, the move was to the disappointment of traditionalists and drew criticism from some supporters' groups.[2][3]

text: Format[edit]

text: In the past a replay match was played if the first semi-final ended in a draw. If the replay match also ended in a draw a second replay match would take place. In theory an unlimited number of games could be played to determine the outcome of a tie. For example, in 1980 it took four games to decide the winner between Arsenal and Liverpool. This is the most games needed to settle an FA Cup Semi-final, although there were several occasions where three games were played. Prior to the 1992 semi-finals, the only semi-final played under different rules to this was the rearranged 1989 semi-final between Liverpool and Nottingham Forest, for which it had been declared in advance that the game would be decided by extra-time and penalties if necessary.

text: In 1991 the FA decided that only one replay should be played (starting with the 1991–92 competition). If this game ended in a draw, extra time would be played, followed by penalty kicks if the match was still even. In 1999 it was decided that the semi-finals should be decided in one game, with extra time and penalties used to determine the outcome if the game ended in a draw (replays are still used in earlier rounds, however). The last FA Cup Semi-final replay, in 1999, saw Manchester United take on Arsenal at Villa Park. This turned out to become one of the most memorable semi-finals of all time, with Peter Schmeichel saving a last-minute penalty from Dennis Bergkamp and a Ryan Giggs extra time goal deciding the outcome in Manchester United's favour. In 2003 this goal was voted the greatest ever in FA Cup history.

text: Queen's Park chose not to contest the 1871–72 replay match with Wanderers. There were no semi-finals played in the 1872–73 competition, while between 1877–1881 only one semi-final was played.

text: The 1989 semi-final between Liverpool and Nottingham Forest at Hillsborough, Sheffield, turned into tragedy when 96 supporters were killed in the stands due to overcrowding. The Hillsborough disaster had wide-ranging effects on future stadium design.

text: Records[edit]

text: Villa Park is the most used stadium in FA Cup semi–final history, having hosted 55 semi–finals.

text: The highest attendance for an FA Cup semi-final is 88,141 for Everton's penalty win over Manchester United on 19 April 2009.[4] It was the fourth semi-final to be played at the new Wembley Stadium.

text: The highest winning margin was Newcastle United's 6–0 victory over Fulham in the 1908 Anfield semi-final. The highest post-war winning margin was Stoke City's 5–0 victory over Bolton Wanderers in the second 2011 semi-final on 17 April 2011. The highest-scoring match was Hull City's 5–3 victory over Sheffield United in the second 2014 semi-final.

text: List of FA Cup semi-finals[edit]

text: Semi-final Key[edit]

text:
*
Match went to extra time

†
Match decided by a penalty shootout after extra time

Bold
Winning team won The Double

Italics
Team from outside the top level of English football
(since the formation of The Football League in 1888)

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1872
1
Royal Engineers
0–0
Crystal Palace
Kennington Oval

3–0
Kennington Oval

2
Wanderers
0–0
Queen's Park
Kennington Oval

w/o
1

1873
1
Oxford University
w/o
Queen's Park
2

Bye
Wanderers

1874
1
Oxford University
1–0
Clapham Rovers
Kennington Oval

2
Royal Engineers
2–0
Swifts
Kennington Oval

1875
1
Old Etonians
1–0
Shropshire Wanderers
Kennington Oval

2
Royal Engineers
1–1
Oxford University
Kennington Oval

1–0
Kennington Oval

1876
1
Old Etonians
1–0
Oxford University
Kennington Oval

2
Wanderers
2–1
Swifts
Kennington Oval

1877
1
Wanderers
1–0
Cambridge University
Kennington Oval

Bye
Oxford University

1878
1
Royal Engineers
2–1
Old Harrovians
Kennington Oval

Bye
Wanderers

1879
1
Old Etonians
2–1
Nottingham Forest
Kennington Oval

Bye
Clapham Rovers

text:
1 Queen's Park could not afford a second trip to London for their semi-final replay and were forced to withdraw
2 Queen's Park once again withdrew from the FA Cup at the semi-final stage.

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1880
1
Oxford University
1–0
Nottingham Forest
Kennington Oval

Bye
Clapham Rovers

1881
1
Old Carthusians
4–1
Darwen
Kennington Oval

Bye
Old Etonians

1882
1
Blackburn Rovers
0–0
The Wednesday
St John's Ground

5–1
Whalley Range

2
Old Etonians
5–0
Marlow
Kennington Oval

1883
1
Blackburn Olympic
4–0
Old Carthusians
Whalley Range

2
Old Etonians
2–1
Notts County
Kennington Oval

1884
1
Blackburn Rovers
1–0
Notts County
Aston Lower Grounds

2
Queen's Park
4–1
Blackburn Olympic
Trent Bridge

1885
1
Blackburn Rovers
5–1
Old Carthusians
Trent Bridge

2
Queen's Park
1–1
Nottingham Forest
Racecourse Ground

3–0
Merchiston Castle School

1886
1
Blackburn Rovers
2–1
Swifts
Racecourse Ground

2
West Bromwich Albion
4–0
Small Heath Alliance
Aston Lower Grounds

1887
1
Aston Villa
3–1
Rangers
Alexandra Recreation Ground

2
West Bromwich Albion
3–1
Preston North End
Trent Bridge

1888
1
Preston North End
4–0
Crewe Alexandra
Anfield

2
West Bromwich Albion
3–0
Derby Junction
Victoria Ground

1889
1
Preston North End
1–0
West Bromwich Albion
Bramall Lane

2
Wolverhampton Wanderers
1–1
Blackburn Rovers
Alexandra Recreation Ground

3–1
Alexandra Recreation Ground

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1890
1
Blackburn Rovers
1–0
Wolverhampton Wanderers
Racecourse Ground

2
The Wednesday[5]
2–1
Bolton Wanderers
Wellington Road

1891
1
Blackburn Rovers
3–2
West Bromwich Albion
Victoria Ground

2
Notts County
3–3
Sunderland
Bramall Lane

2–0
Bramall Lane

1892
1
Aston Villa
4–1
Sunderland
Bramall Lane

2
West Bromwich Albion
1–1
Nottingham Forest[5]
Molineux

1–1
Molineux

6–2
Racecourse Ground

1893
1
Everton
2–2
Preston North End
Bramall Lane

0–0
Bramall Lane

2–1
Ewood Park

2
Wolverhampton Wanderers
2–1
Blackburn Rovers
Town Ground

1894
1
Bolton Wanderers
2–1
The Wednesday
Fallowfield Stadium

2
Notts County[6]
1–0
Blackburn Rovers
Bramall Lane

1895
1
Aston Villa
2–1
Sunderland
Ewood Park

2
West Bromwich Albion
2–0
The Wednesday
Racecourse Ground

1896
1
The Wednesday
1–1
Bolton Wanderers
Goodison Park

3–1
Town Ground

2
Wolverhampton Wanderers
2–1
Derby County
Wellington Road

1897
1
Aston Villa
3–0
Liverpool
Bramall Lane

2
Everton
3–2
Derby County
Victoria Ground

1898
1
Derby County
3–1
Everton
Molineux

2
Nottingham Forest
1–1
Southampton[5]
Bramall Lane

2–0
Crystal Palace

1899
1
Derby County
3–1
Stoke City
Molineux

2
Sheffield United
2–2
Liverpool
Burnden Park

4–4
Burnden Park

Abandoned
Fallowfield Stadium

1–0
Baseball Ground

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1900
1
Bury
1–1
Nottingham Forest
Victoria Ground

3–2
Bramall Lane

2
Southampton[5]
0–0
Millwall Athletic[5]
Crystal Palace

3–0
Elm Park

1901
1
Sheffield United
2–2
Aston Villa
City Ground

3–0
Baseball Ground

2
Tottenham Hotspur[5]
4–0
West Bromwich Albion
Villa Park

1902
1
Sheffield United
2–2
Derby County
The Hawthorns

1–1
Molineux

1–0
City Ground

2
Southampton[5]
3–1
Nottingham Forest
White Hart Lane

1903
1
Bury
3–0
Aston Villa
Goodison Park

2
Derby County
3–0
Millwall Athletic[5]
Villa Park

1904
1
Bolton Wanderers[6]
1–0
Derby County
Molineux

2
Manchester City
3–0
The Wednesday
Goodison Park

1905
1
Aston Villa
1–1
Everton
Victoria Ground

2–1
City Ground

2
Newcastle United
1–0
The Wednesday
Hyde Road

1906
1
Everton
2–0
Liverpool
Villa Park

2
Newcastle United
2–0
Woolwich Arsenal
Victoria Ground

1907
1
Everton
2–1
West Bromwich Albion[6]
Burnden Park

2
The Wednesday
3–1
Woolwich Arsenal
St Andrew's

1908
1
Newcastle United
6–0
Fulham[6]
Anfield

2
Wolverhampton Wanderers[6]
2–0
Southampton[6]
Stamford Bridge

1909
1
Bristol City
1–1
Derby County[6]
Stamford Bridge

2–1
St Andrew's

2
Manchester United
1–0
Newcastle United
Bramall Lane

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Loser
Score
Venue

1910
1
Barnsley[6]
Everton
0–0
Elland Road

3–0
Old Trafford

2
Newcastle United
Swindon Town[5]
2–0
White Hart Lane

1911
1
Bradford City
Blackburn Rovers
3–0
Bramall Lane

2
Newcastle United
Chelsea[6]
3–0
St Andrew's

1912
1
Barnsley[6]
Swindon Town[5]
0–0
Stamford Bridge

1–0
Meadow Lane

2
West Bromwich Albion
Blackburn Rovers
0–0
Anfield

1–0*
Hillsborough

1913
1
Aston Villa
Oldham Athletic
1–0
Ewood Park

2
Sunderland
Burnley[6]
0–0
Bramall Lane

3–2
St Andrew's

1914
1
Burnley
Sheffield United
0–0
Old Trafford

1–0
Goodison Park

2
Liverpool
Aston Villa
2–0
White Hart Lane

1915
1
Chelsea
Everton
2–0
Villa Park

2
Sheffield United
Bolton Wanderers
2–1
Ewood Park

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Loser
Score
Venue

1920
1
Aston Villa
Chelsea
3–1
Bramall Lane

2
Huddersfield Town[6]
Bristol City[6]
2–1
Stamford Bridge

1921
1
Tottenham Hotspur
Preston North End
2–1
Hillsborough

2
Wolverhampton Wanderers[6]
Cardiff City[6]
0–0
Anfield

3–1
Old Trafford

1922
1
Huddersfield Town
Notts County[6]
3–1
Turf Moor

2
Preston North End
Tottenham Hotspur
2–1
Hillsborough

1923
1
Bolton Wanderers
Sheffield United
1–0
Old Trafford

2
West Ham United[6]
Derby County[6]
5–2
Stamford Bridge

1924
1
Aston Villa
Burnley
3–0
Bramall Lane

2
Newcastle United
Manchester City
2–0
St Andrew's

1925
1
Cardiff City
Blackburn Rovers
3–1
Meadow Lane

2
Sheffield United
Southampton[6]
2–0
Stamford Bridge

1926
1
Bolton Wanderers
Swansea Town[6]
3–0
White Hart Lane

2
Manchester City
Manchester United
3–0
Bramall Lane

1927
1
Arsenal
Southampton[6]
2–1
Stamford Bridge

2
Cardiff City
Reading[6]
3–0
Molineux

1928
1
Blackburn Rovers
Arsenal
1–0
Filbert Street

2
Huddersfield Town
Sheffield United
2–2
Old Trafford

0–0
Goodison Park

1–0
Maine Road

1929
1
Bolton Wanderers
Huddersfield Town
3–1
Anfield

2
Portsmouth
Aston Villa
1–0
Highbury

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Loser
Score
Venue

1930
1
Arsenal
Hull City[6]
2–2
Elland Road

1–0
Villa Park

2
Huddersfield Town
Sheffield Wednesday
2–1
Old Trafford

1931
1
Birmingham
Sunderland
2–0
Elland Road

2
West Bromwich Albion[6]
Everton[6]
1–0
Old Trafford

1932
1
Arsenal
Manchester City
1–0
Villa Park

2
Newcastle United
Chelsea
2–1
Leeds Road

1933
1
Everton
West Ham United[6]
2–1
Molineux

2
Manchester City
Derby County
3–2
Leeds Road

1934
1
Manchester City
Aston Villa
6–1
Leeds Road

2
Portsmouth
Leicester City
4–1
St Andrew's

1935
1
Sheffield Wednesday
Burnley[6]
3–0
Villa Park

2
West Bromwich Albion
Bolton Wanderers[6]
1–1
Elland Road

2–0
Victoria Ground

1936
1
Arsenal
Grimsby Town
1–0
Leeds Road

2
Sheffield United[6]
Fulham[6]
2–1
Molineux

1937
1
Preston North End
West Bromwich Albion
4–1
Highbury

2
Sunderland
Millwall[7]
2–1
Leeds Road

1938
1
Huddersfield Town
Sunderland
3–1
Ewood Park

2
Preston North End
Aston Villa[6]
2–1
Bramall Lane

1939
1
Portsmouth
Huddersfield Town
2–1
Highbury

2
Wolverhampton Wanderers
Grimsby Town
5–0
Old Trafford

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1946
1
Charlton Athletic
2–0
Bolton Wanderers
Villa Park

2
Derby County
1–1
Birmingham City
Hillsborough

4–1*
Maine Road

1947
1
Charlton Athletic
4–0
Newcastle United[6]
Elland Road

2
Burnley[6]
0–0*
Liverpool
Ewood Park

1–0
Maine Road

1948
1
Manchester United
3–1
Derby County
Hillsborough

2
Blackpool
3–1*
Tottenham Hotspur[6]
Villa Park

1949
1
Wolverhampton Wanderers
1–1
Manchester United
Hillsborough

1–0
Goodison Park

2
Leicester City[6]
3–1
Portsmouth
Highbury

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Loser
Score
Venue

1950
1
Liverpool
Everton
2–0
Maine Road

2
Arsenal
Chelsea
2–2
White Hart Lane

1–0*
White Hart Lane

1951
1
Newcastle United
Wolverhampton Wanderers
0–0
Hillsborough

2–1
Leeds Road

2
Blackpool
Birmingham City[6]
0–0
Maine Road

2–1
Goodison Park

1952
1
Arsenal
Chelsea
1–1
White Hart Lane

3–0
White Hart Lane

2
Newcastle United
Blackburn Rovers[6]
0–0
Hillsborough

2–1
Elland Road

1953
1
Blackpool
Tottenham Hotspur
2–1
Villa Park

2
Bolton Wanderers
Everton[6]
4–3
Maine Road

1954
1
Preston North End
Sheffield Wednesday
2–0
Maine Road

2
West Bromwich Albion
Port Vale[7]
2–1
Villa Park

1955
1
Manchester City
Sunderland
1–0
Villa Park

2
Newcastle United
York City[7]
1–1
Hillsborough

1–0
Roker Park

1956
1
Birmingham City
Sunderland
3–0
Hillsborough

2
Manchester City
Tottenham Hotspur
1–0
Villa Park

1957
1
Aston Villa
West Bromwich Albion
2–2
Molineux

1–0
St Andrew's

2
Manchester United
Birmingham City
2–0
Hillsborough

1958
1
Bolton Wanderers
Blackburn Rovers[6]
2–1
Maine Road

2
Manchester United
Fulham[6]
2–2
Villa Park

5–3
Highbury

1959
1
Luton Town
Norwich City[7]
1–1
White Hart Lane

1–0
St Andrew's

2
Nottingham Forest
Aston Villa
1–0
Hillsborough

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Loser
Score
Venue

1960
1
Blackburn Rovers
Sheffield Wednesday
2–1
Maine Road

2
Wolverhampton Wanderers
Aston Villa[6]
1–0
The Hawthorns

1961
1
Leicester City
Sheffield United[6]
0–0
Elland Road

0–0*
City Ground

2–0*
St Andrew's

2
Tottenham Hotspur
Burnley
3–0
Villa Park

1962
1
Burnley
Fulham
1–1
Villa Park

2–1
Filbert Street

2
Tottenham Hotspur
Manchester United
3–1
Hillsborough

1963
1
Leicester City
Liverpool
1–0
Hillsborough

2
Manchester United
Southampton[6]
1–0
Villa Park

1964
1
Preston North End[6]
Swansea Town[6]
2–1
Villa Park

2
West Ham United
Manchester United
3–1
Hillsborough

1965
1
Liverpool
Chelsea
2–0
Villa Park

2
Leeds United
Manchester United
0–0
Hillsborough

1–0
City Ground

1966
1
Everton
Manchester United
1–0
Burnden Park

2
Sheffield Wednesday
Chelsea
2–0
Villa Park

1967
1
Chelsea
Leeds United
1–0
Villa Park

2
Tottenham Hotspur
Nottingham Forest
2–1
Hillsborough

1968
1
Everton
Leeds United
1–0
Old Trafford

2
West Bromwich Albion
Birmingham City[6]
2–0
Villa Park

1969
1
Leicester City
West Bromwich Albion
1–0
Hillsborough

2
Manchester City
Everton
1–0
Villa Park

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1970
1
Chelsea
5–1
Watford[6]
White Hart Lane

2
Leeds United
0–0
Manchester United
Hillsborough

0–0*
Villa Park

1–0
Burnden Park

1971
1
Arsenal
2–2
Stoke City
Hillsborough

2–0
Villa Park

2
Liverpool
2–1
Everton
Old Trafford

1972
1
Arsenal
1–1
Stoke City
Villa Park

2–1
Goodison Park

2
Leeds United
3–0
Birmingham City[6]
Hillsborough

1973
1
Leeds United
1–0
Wolverhampton Wanderers
Maine Road

2
Sunderland[6]
2–1
Arsenal
Hillsborough

1974
1
Liverpool
0–0
Leicester City
Old Trafford

3–1
Villa Park

2
Newcastle United
2–0
Burnley
Hillsborough

1975
1
Fulham[6]
1–1
Birmingham City
Hillsborough

1–0*
Maine Road

2
West Ham United
0–0
Ipswich Town
Villa Park

2–1
Stamford Bridge

1976
1
Manchester United
2–0
Derby County
Hillsborough

2
Southampton[6]
2–0
Crystal Palace[7]
Stamford Bridge

1977
1
Manchester United
2–1
Leeds United
Hillsborough

2
Liverpool
2–2
Everton
Maine Road

3–0
Maine Road

1978
1
Arsenal
3–0
Orient[6]
Stamford Bridge

2
Ipswich Town
3–1
West Bromwich Albion
Highbury

1979
1
Arsenal
2–0
Wolverhampton Wanderers
Villa Park

2
Manchester United
2–2
Liverpool
Maine Road

1–0
Goodison Park

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1980
1
Arsenal
0–0
Liverpool
Hillsborough

1–1*
Villa Park

1–1*
Villa Park

1–0
Highfield Road

2
West Ham United[6]
1–1
Everton
Villa Park

2–1
Elland Road

1981
1
Manchester City
1–0*
Ipswich Town
Villa Park

2
Tottenham Hotspur
2–2*
Wolverhampton Wanderers
Hillsborough

3–0
Highbury

1982
1
Queens Park Rangers[6]
1–0
West Bromwich Albion
Highbury

2
Tottenham Hotspur
2–0
Leicester City[6]
Villa Park

1983
1
Manchester United
2–1
Arsenal
Villa Park

2
Brighton & Hove Albion
2–1
Sheffield Wednesday[6]
Highbury

1984
1
Everton
1–0*
Southampton
Highbury

2
Watford
1–0
Plymouth Argyle[7]
Villa Park

1985
1
Manchester United
2–2*
Liverpool
Goodison Park

2–1
Maine Road

2
Everton
2–1*
Luton Town
Villa Park

1986
1
Liverpool
2–0*
Southampton
White Hart Lane

2
Everton
2–1*
Sheffield Wednesday
Villa Park

1987
1
Coventry City
3–2*
Leeds United[6]
Hillsborough

2
Tottenham Hotspur
4–1
Watford
Villa Park

1988
1
Liverpool
2–1
Nottingham Forest
Hillsborough

2
Wimbledon
2–1
Luton Town
White Hart Lane

1989
1
Liverpool
Abandoned after 6min
Nottingham Forest
Hillsborough

3–1
Old Trafford

2
Everton
1–0
Norwich City
Villa Park

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

1990
1
Manchester United
3–3*
Oldham Athletic[6]
Maine Road

2–1*
Maine Road

2
Crystal Palace
4–3*
Liverpool
Villa Park

1991
1
Nottingham Forest
4–0
West Ham United[6]
Villa Park

2
Tottenham Hotspur
3–1
Arsenal
Wembley Stadium (Original)

1992
1
Liverpool
1–1*
Portsmouth[6]
Highbury

0–0†[8]
Villa Park

2
Sunderland[6]
1–0
Norwich City
Hillsborough

1993
1
Arsenal
1–0
Tottenham Hotspur
Wembley Stadium (Original)

2
Sheffield Wednesday
2–1*
Sheffield United
Wembley Stadium (Original)

1994
1
Chelsea
2–0
Luton Town[6]
Wembley Stadium (Original)

2
Manchester United
1–1*
Oldham Athletic
Wembley Stadium (Original)

4–1
Maine Road

1995
1
Everton
4–1
Tottenham Hotspur
Elland Road

2
Manchester United
2–2*
Crystal Palace
Villa Park

2–0
Villa Park

1996
1
Manchester United
2–1
Chelsea
Villa Park

2
Liverpool
3–0
Aston Villa
Old Trafford

1997
1
Chelsea
3–0
Wimbledon
Highbury

2
Middlesbrough
3–3*
Chesterfield[7]
Old Trafford

3–0
Hillsborough

1998
1
Arsenal
1–0
Wolverhampton Wanderers[6]
Villa Park

2
Newcastle United
1–0
Sheffield United[6]
Old Trafford

1999
1
Manchester United
0–0*
Arsenal
Villa Park

2–1*
Villa Park

2
Newcastle United
2–0*
Tottenham Hotspur
Old Trafford

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

2000
1
Aston Villa
0–0†[9]
Bolton Wanderers[6]
Wembley Stadium (Original)

2
Chelsea
2–1
Newcastle United
Wembley Stadium (Original)

2001
1
Arsenal
2–1
Tottenham Hotspur
Old Trafford

2
Liverpool
2–1
Wycombe Wanderers[7]
Villa Park

2002
1
Arsenal
1–0
Middlesbrough
Old Trafford

2
Chelsea
1–0
Fulham
Villa Park

2003
1
Arsenal
1–0
Sheffield United[6]
Old Trafford

2
Southampton
2–1
Watford[6]
Villa Park

2004
1
Manchester United
1–0
Arsenal
Villa Park

2
Millwall[6]
1–0
Sunderland[6]
Old Trafford

2005
1
Arsenal
3–0
Blackburn Rovers
Millennium Stadium

2
Manchester United
4–1
Newcastle United
Millennium Stadium

2006
1
Liverpool
2–1
Chelsea
Old Trafford

2
West Ham United
1–0
Middlesbrough
Villa Park

2007
1
Manchester United
4–1
Watford
Villa Park

2
Chelsea
2–1*
Blackburn Rovers
Old Trafford

2008
1
Portsmouth
1–0
West Bromwich Albion[6]
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Cardiff City[6]
1–0
Barnsley[6]
Wembley Stadium (New)

2009
1
Chelsea
2–1
Arsenal
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Everton
0–0†[10]
Manchester United
Wembley Stadium (New)

text:
Year
SF
Winner
Score
Loser
Venue

2010
1
Chelsea
3–0
Aston Villa
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Portsmouth
2–0*
Tottenham Hotspur
Wembley Stadium (New)

2011
1
Manchester City
1–0
Manchester United
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Stoke City
5–0
Bolton Wanderers
Wembley Stadium (New)

2012
1
Liverpool
2–1
Everton
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Chelsea
5–1
Tottenham Hotspur
Wembley Stadium (New)

2013
1
Wigan Athletic
2–0
Millwall[6]
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Manchester City
2–1
Chelsea
Wembley Stadium (New)

2014
1
Arsenal
1–1†[11]
Wigan Athletic[6]
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Hull City
5–3
Sheffield United[7]
Wembley Stadium (New)

2015
1
Arsenal
2–1*
Reading[6]
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Aston Villa
2–1
Liverpool
Wembley Stadium (New)

2016
1
Manchester United
2–1
Everton
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Crystal Palace
2–1
Watford
Wembley Stadium (New)

2017
1
Chelsea
4–2
Tottenham Hotspur
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Arsenal
2–1*
Manchester City
Wembley Stadium (New)

2018
1
Manchester United
2–1
Tottenham Hotspur
Wembley Stadium (New)

2
Chelsea
2–0
Southampton
Wembley Stadium (New)

text: Semi-finals table[edit]

text: Teams shown with an asterisk beside their name are no longer in existence. This table is updated after 2016–17 FA Cup.

text:
Team
Appearances
Won
Lost

Arsenal
29
20
9

Aston Villa
21
11
10

Barnsley
3
2
1

Birmingham City
9
2
7

Blackburn Olympic
2
1
1

Blackburn Rovers
18
8
10

Blackpool
3
3
0

Bolton Wanderers
14
7
7

Bradford City
1
1
0

Brighton and Hove Albion
1
1
0

Bristol City
2
1
1

Burnley
8
3
5

Bury
2
2
0

Cambridge University
1
0
1

Cardiff City[note 1]
4
3
1

Charlton Athletic
2
2
0

Chelsea
22
12
10

Chesterfield
1
0
1

Clapham Rovers*
1
0
1

Coventry City
1
1
0

Crewe Alexandra
1
0
1

Crystal Palace (1861)*
1
0
1

Crystal Palace (1905)
4
2
2

Darwen
1
0
1

Derby County
13
4
9

Derby Junction*
1
0
1

Everton
26
13
13

Fulham
6
1
5

Grimsby Town
2
0
2

Huddersfield Town
7
5
2

Hull City
2
1
1

Ipswich Town
3
1
2

Leeds United
8
4
4

Leicester City
7
4
3

Orient
1
0
1

Liverpool
24
14
10

Luton Town
4
1
3

Manchester City
13
10
3

Manchester United
28
19
9

Marlow
1
0
1

Middlesbrough
3
1
2

Millwall
5
1
4

Newcastle United
17
13
4

Norwich City
3
0
3

Nottingham Forest
12
3
9

Notts County
5
2
3

Old Carthusians
3
1
2

Old Etonians
5
5
0

Old Harrovians
1
0
1

Oldham Athletic
3
0
3

Oxford University
5
3
2

Plymouth Argyle
1
0
1

Port Vale
1
0
1

Portsmouth
7
5
2

Preston North End
10
7
3

Queen's Park[note 2]
3
2
1

Queens Park Rangers
1
1
0

Rangers[note 3]
1
0
1

Reading
2
0
2

Royal Engineers
4
4
0

Sheffield United
14
6
8

Sheffield Wednesday
16
6
10

Shropshire Wanderers*
1
0
1

Southampton
11
4
7

Stoke City
4
1
3

Sunderland
12
4
8

Swansea City[note 4]
2
0
2

Swifts*
3
0
3

Swindon Town
2
0
2

Tottenham Hotspur
20
9
11

Wanderers*
3
3
0

Watford
6
1
5

West Bromwich Albion
20
10
10

West Ham United
7
5
2

Wigan Athletic
2
1
1

Wimbledon*
2
1
1

Wolverhampton Wanderers
14
8
6

Wycombe Wanderers
1
0
1

York City
1
0
1

text: Venues[edit]

text:
Stadium
City
SF
matches
Year of
first SF
Most
recent SF

Kennington Oval*
London
17
1872
1883

St John's Ground*
Huddersfield
1
1882
1882

Whalley Range*
Manchester
2
1882
1883

Aston Lower Grounds*
Birmingham
2
1884
1886

Trent Bridge*
West Bridgford
3
1884
1887

Racecourse Ground*
Derby
5
1885
1890

Merchiston Castle School*
Edinburgh, Scotland [note 5]
1
1885
1885

Alexandra Recreation Ground*
Crewe
3
1887
1889

Anfield
Liverpool
5
1888
1929

Victoria Ground*
Stoke-on-Trent
7
1897
1935

Wellington Road*
Perry Barr
2
1890
1896

Bramall Lane
Sheffield
17
1889
1938

Molineux
Wolverhampton
10
1892
1957

Ewood Park
Blackburn
6
1893
1947

Town Ground*
Nottingham
2
1893
1896

Fallowfield Stadium*
Manchester
2
1894
1899

Goodison Park
Liverpool
10
1896
1985

Crystal Palace*
London
2
1898
1900

Burnden Park*
Bolton
5
1899
1970

Baseball Ground*
Derby
2
1899
1901

Elm Park*
Reading
1
1900
1900

Villa Park
Birmingham
55
1901
2007

City Ground
West Bridgford
5
1901
1965

The Hawthorns
West Bromwich
2
1902
1960

White Hart Lane*
London
12
1902
1988

Hyde Road*
Manchester
1
1905
1905

St Andrew's
Birmingham
9
1907
1961

Stamford Bridge
London
10
1910
1978

Elland Road
Leeds
10
1910
1995

Old Trafford
Trafford
23
1910
2007

Meadow Lane
Nottingham
2
1912
1925

Hillsborough
Sheffield
34
1912
1997

Turf Moor
Burnley
1
1922
1922

Filbert Street*
Leicester
2
1928
1962

Maine Road*
Manchester
18
1928
1994

Highbury*
London
12
1929
1997

Leeds Road*
Huddersfield
6
1932
1951

Roker Park*
Sunderland
1
1955
1955

Highfield Road*
Coventry
1
1980
1980

Old Wembley*
London
7
1991
2000

Millennium Stadium
Cardiff, Wales[note 6]
2
2005
2005

New Wembley
London
20
2008
2017


document_title: Microchip implant (animal)

question_text: where does the microchip go in a dog

question_tokens: where does the microchip go in a dog

text: Microchip implant (animal)

text: Uses and benefits[edit]

text: Animal shelters, animal control officers and veterinarians routinely look for microchips to return lost pets quickly to their owners, avoiding expenses for housing, food, medical care, outplacing and euthanasia. Many shelters place chips in all outplaced animals.

text: Microchips are also used by kennels, breeders, brokers, trainers, registries, rescue groups, humane societies, clinics, farms, stables, animal clubs and associations, researchers, and pet stores.

text: Some pet doors can be programmed to be activated by the microchips of specific animals, allowing only certain animals to use the door.[1]

text: Some countries require microchips in imported animals to match vaccination records. Microchip tagging may also be required for CITES-regulated international trade in certain endangered animals: for example, Asian Arowana are tagged to limit import to captive-bred fish. Also, birds not banded who cross international borders as pets or for trade must be microchipped so that each bird is uniquely identifiable.

text: Usage[edit]

text: Microchips can be implanted by a veterinarian or at a shelter. After checking that the animal does not already have a chip, the vet or technician injects the chip with a syringe and records the chip's unique ID. No anesthetic is required it is a simple procedure and causes little discomfort: the pain is minimal and short-lived[2]. A test scan ensures correct operation.

text: An enrollment form is completed with chip ID, owner contact information, pet name and description, shelter and/or veterinarian contact information, and an alternate emergency contact designated by the pet owner. Some shelters and vets designate themselves as the primary contact to remain informed about possible problems with the animals they place. The form is sent to a registry, who may be the chip manufacturer, distributor or an independent entity such as a pet recovery service. Some countries have a single official national database. For a fee, the registry typically provides 24-hour, toll-free telephone service for the life of the pet. Some veterinarians leave registration to the owner, usually done online, but a chip without current contact information is essentially useless.

text: The owner receives a registration certificate with the chip ID and recovery service contact information. The information can also be imprinted on a collar tag worn by the animal. Like an automobile title, the certificate serves as proof of ownership and is transferred with the animal when it is sold or traded; an animal without a certificate could be stolen.

text: Authorities and shelters examine strays for chips, providing the recovery service with the ID number, description and location so they may notify the owner or contact. If the pet is wearing the collar tag, the finder does not need a chip reader to contact the registry. An owner can also report a missing pet to the recovery service, as vets look for chips in new animals and check with the recovery service to see if it has been reported lost or stolen.

text: Many veterinarians scan an animal's chip on every visit to verify correct operation. Some use the chip ID as their database index and print it on receipts, test results, vaccination certifications and other records.

text: Some veterinary tests and procedures require positive identification of the animal, and a microchip may be acceptable for this purpose as an alternative to a tattoo.

text: Components of a microchip[edit]

text: A microchip implant is a passive RFID device. Lacking an internal power source, it remains inert until it is powered by the scanner.

text: Most implants contain three elements: a 'chip' or integrated circuit; a coil inductor, possibly with a ferrite core; and a capacitor. The chip contains unique identification data and electronic circuits to encode that information. The coil acts as the secondary winding of a transformer, receiving power inductively coupled to it from the scanner. The coil and capacitor together form a resonant LC circuit tuned to the frequency of the scanner's oscillating magnetic field to produce power for the chip. The chip then transmits its data back through the coil to the scanner.

text: These components are encased in biocompatible soda lime or borosilicate glass and hermetically sealed. Barring rare complications, dogs and cats are unaffected by them.

text: Implant location[edit]

text: In dogs and cats, chips are usually inserted below the skin at the back of the neck between the shoulder blades on the dorsal midline. According to one reference, continental European pets get the implant in the left side of the neck.[3] The chip can often be felt under the skin. Thin layers of connective tissue form around the implant and hold it in place.

text: Horses are microchipped on the left side of the neck, halfway between the poll and withers and approximately one inch below the midline of the mane, into the nuchal ligament.

text: Birds are implanted in their breast muscles. Proper restraint is necessary so the operation requires either two people (an avian veterinarian and a veterinary technician) or general anesthesia.

text: Implanted microchips can distort magnetic resonance imaging (MRIs), including those of the spinal cord.[4]

text: Animal species[edit]

text: Many animal species have been microchipped, including cockatiels and other parrots, horses, llamas, alpacas, goats, sheep, miniature pigs, rabbits, deer, ferrets, penguins, sharks, snakes, lizards, alligators, turtles, toads, frogs, rare fish, chimpanzees, mice, and prairie dogs—even whales and elephants. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service uses microchipping in its research of wild bison, black-footed ferrets, grizzly bears, elk, white-tailed deer, giant land tortoises and armadillos.

text: Worldwide use[edit]

text: Microchips are not yet universal, but they are legally required in some jurisdictions such as the state of New South Wales, Australia[5] and the United Kingdom (for dogs, since 6 April 2016[6]).

text: Some countries, such as Japan, require ISO-compliant microchips or a compatible reader on imported dogs and cats.[7]

text: In New Zealand, all dogs first registered after 1 July 2006 must be microchipped. Farmers protested that farm dogs should be exempt, drawing a parallel to the Dog Tax War of 1898.[8] Farm dogs were exempted from microchipping in an amendment to the legislation passed in June 2006.[9] A National Animal Identification and Tracing scheme in New Zealand is currently being developed for tracking livestock.

text: In April 2012 Northern Ireland became the first part of the United Kingdom to require microchipping of individually licensed dogs.[10] Dog microchipping became mandatory in England on 6 April 2016.[11]

text: In Israel, microchips in dogs are mandatory.[citation needed]

text: Australia has a National Livestock Identification System.

text: The United States uses the National Animal Identification System for farm and ranch animals other than dogs and cats. In most species except horses, an external eartag is typically used in lieu of an implant microchip. Eartags with microchips or simply stamped with a visible number can be used. Both use ISO 15 digit microchip numbers with the U.S. country code of 840.

text: Cross-compatibility and standards issues[edit]

text: In most countries, pet ID chips adhere to an international standard to promote compatibility between chips and scanners. In the United States, however, three proprietary types of chips compete along with the international standard. Scanners distributed to United States shelters and veterinarians well into 2006 could each read at most three of the four types. Scanners with quad-read capability are now available and are increasingly considered required equipment. Older scanner models will be in use for some time, so United States pet owners must still choose between a chip with good coverage by existing scanners and one compatible with the international standard. The four types include:

text:
The ISO Conformant Full Duplex type has the greatest international acceptance. It is common in many countries including Europe (since the late 1990s) and Canada. It is one of two chip protocol types (along with the "Half Duplex" type sometimes used in farm and ranch animals) that conform to International Organization for Standardization standards ISO 11784 & 11785. To support international/multivendor application, the 3-digit country code can contain an assigned ISO country code or a manufacturer code from 900 to 998 plus its identifying serial number.[Note 1] In the United States, distribution of this type has been controversial. When 24PetWatch.com began distributing them in 2003 (and more famously Banfield Pet Hospitals in 2004) many shelter scanners couldn't read them. (Some still can't; asking local shelters about this is still a good idea.) At least one Banfield-chipped pet was inadvertently euthanized.[12]
The Trovan Unique type is another pet chip protocol type in use since 1990 in pets in the United States.[13] Patent problems forced the withdrawal of Trovan's implanter device from United States distribution and they became uncommon in pets in the United States, although Trovan's original registry database "infopet.biz" remained in operation. In early 2007, the American Kennel Club's chip registration service, AKC Companion Animal Recovery Corp, which had been the authorized registry for HomeAgain brand chips made by Destron/Digital Angel, began distributing Trovan chips with a different implanter. These chips are read by the Trovan, HomeAgain (Destron Fearing), and Bayer (Black Label) readers. Despite multiple offers from Trovan to AVID [14] to license the technology to read the Trovan chips, AVID continues to distribute readers that do not read Trovan or the ISO compliant chips.
A third type sometimes known as FECAVA or Destron[Note 2] is available under various brand names. These include, in the United States, "Avid Eurochip", the common current 24PetWatch chips, and the original (and still popular) style of HomeAgain chips. (HomeAgain and 24Petwatch can now supply the true ISO chip instead on request.) Chips of this type have 10 digit [hexadecimal] chip numbers. This "FECAVA" type is readable on a wide variety of scanners in the United States and has been less controversial, although its level of adherence to the ISO standards is sometimes exaggerated in some descriptions.[15][16][17] The ISO standard has an annex (appendix) recommending that three older chip types be supported by scanners, including a 35-bit "FECAVA"/"Destron" type.[18] The common Eurochip/HomeAgain chips don't agree perfectly with the annex description, although the differences are sometimes considered minor.[Note 3] But the ISO standard also makes it clear[Note 4] that only its 64-bit "full-duplex" and "half-duplex" types are "conformant"; even chips (e.g., the Trovan Unique) that match one of the Annex descriptions are not. More visibly, FECAVA cannot support the ISO standard's required country/manufacturer codes. They may be accepted by authorities in many countries where ISO-standard chips are the norm, but not by those requiring literal ISO conformance.
Finally, there's the AVID brand Friendchip type, which is peculiar due to its encryption characteristics. Cryptographic features are not necessarily unwelcome; few pet rescuers or humane societies would object to a design that outputs an ID number "in the clear" for anyone to read, along with authentication features for detection of counterfeit chips, but the authentication in "Friendchips" has been found lacking and rather easy to spoof to the AVID scanner. Although no authentication encryption is involved, obfuscation requires proprietary information to convert transmitted chip data to its original label ID code. Well into 2006, scanners containing the proprietary decryption were provided to the United States market only by AVID and Destron/Digital Angel; Destron/Digital Angel put the decryption feature in some, but not all, of its scanners, possibly as early as 1996. (For years, its scanners distributed to shelters through HomeAgain usually had full decryption, while many sold to veterinarians would only state that an AVID chip had been found.) Well into 2006, both were resisting calls from consumers and welfare group officials to bring scanners to the United States shelter community combining AVID decryption capability with the ability to read ISO-compliant chips. Some complained[19] that AVID itself had long marketed combination pet scanners compatible with all common pet chips except possibly Trovan outside the United States. By keeping them out of the United States, it could be considered partly culpable in the missed-ISO chips problem others blamed on Banfield.[Note 5] In 2006, the European manufacturer Datamars, a supplier of ISO chips used by Banfield and others, gained access to the decryption secrets and began supplying scanners with them to United States customers. This "Black Label" scanner was the first four-standard full-multi pet scanner in the United States market. Later in 2006, Digital Angel announced[20] that it would supply a full-multi scanner in the United States.[Note 6] In 2008 AVID announced a "breakthrough" scanner,[21] although as of October 2010[update] AVID's is still so uncommon that it's unclear whether it supports the Trovan chip. Trovan also acquired the decryption technology in 2006 or earlier, and now provides it in scanners distributed in the United States by AKC-CAR. (Some are quad-read, but others lack full ISO support.)

text: Numerous references in print state that the incompatibilities between different chip types are a matter of "frequency". One may find claims that early ISO adopters in the United States endangered their customers' pets by giving them ISO chips that work at a "different frequency" from the local shelter's scanner, or that the United States government considered forcing an incompatible frequency change. These claims were little challenged by manufacturers and distributors of ISO chips, although later evidence suggests the claims were disinformation. In fact, all chips operate at the scanner's frequency. Although ISO chips are optimized for 134.2 kHz, in practice they are readable at 125 kHz and the "125 kHz" chips are readable at 134.2 kHz. Confirmation comes from government filings that indicate the supposed "multi-frequency" scanners now commonly available are really single-frequency scanners operating at 125, 134.2 or 128 kHz. In particular, the United States HomeAgain scanner didn't change excitation frequency when ISO-read capability was added; it's still a single frequency, 125 kHz scanner.[22]

text:
Expected results for chip type
(OK=Good read
NR=No read
DO=Detect Only with no number given)

Scanner to test
ISO Conformant Full Duplex chip
AVID Encrypted "FriendChip"
Original U.S. HomeAgain, AVID Eurochip,[Note 7] or FECAVA
"Trovan Unique" and current AKC CAR chips

Minimal ISO Conformant Scanner (also must read HALF Duplex chips common in livestock ear tags)
OK
NR
NR
NR

AVID Basic U.S. Scanner[23]
NR
OK
NR
NR

AVID Deluxe U.S. Scanner
NR
OK
OK
NR

AVID Universal Scanner sold outside U.S.[24]
OK
OK
OK
NR Assumed

AVID MiniTracker Pro Scanner announced August 2008[25]
OK
OK
OK
NR according to some (Few have seen one.)

Various vintages of U.S. HomeAgain "Universal" Shelter Scanners by Destron/Digital Angel Corp.
NR,DO, or OK
OK
OK
Possibly all OK

Typical Destron/Digital Angel Corp. U.S. Veterinarian's scanner pre-2007
[26]

NR
DO
OK
DO

Trovan LID-560-MULTI per mfr. specifications on Web[27]
OK
OK
OK
OK

U.S. Trovan Pocket Scanner per AKC-CAR Web Site[28]
DO
OK
OK
OK

U.S. Trovan ProScan700 per AKC-CAR Web Site[29]
OK
OK
OK
OK

Original 2006 Datamars Black Label Scanner[30]
OK
OK
OK
OK but Reliability Questioned

Datamars Black Label Scanner "classypets" model[31]
OK
NR or DO?
OK
OK but Reliability Questioned

Banfield-Distributed 2004-2005 Vintage Datamars Scanners
OK
Possibly all DO
OK
Possibly all OK but Reliability Questioned (Undocumented Feature)

Datamars Minimax and Micromax[32]
OK
NR
NR
NR

Typical Homemade Scanner[33]
OK
OK but extra step required (web-based decryption service)
OK
OK

Microchip ID Systems "Hero" Scanner[34]
OK
OK
OK
NR

Microchip ID Systems "Pocket Hero" Scanner[35]
OK
NR
NR
NR

text: (For users requiring Shelter-Grade certainty, this table is not a substitute for testing the scanner with a set of specimen chips. One study[36] cites problems with certain Trovan chips on the Datamars Black Label scanner. In general, the study found none of the tested scanners to read all four standards without some deficiency. The study predates the most recent scanner models, however.)

text: Reported adverse reactions[edit]

text: RFID chips are used in animal research, and at least three studies conducted since the 1990s have reported tumors at the site of implantation in laboratory mice and rats.[37] Noted veterinary associations[38] responded with continued support for the procedure as reasonably safe for cats and dogs, pointing to rates of serious complications on the order of one in a million in the U.K., which has a system for tracking such adverse reactions and has chipped over 3.7 million pet dogs. A recent study found no safety concerns for microchipped animals with RFID chips undergoing MRI at one Tesla magnetic field strength.[39] In 2011 a microchip-associated fibrosarcoma was reported found in the neck of a 9-year old, neutered-male cat. Histological examination was consistent with postinjection sarcoma, but all prior vaccinations occurred in the hindlegs.[40]